Question 2 of 6
(demo test)

Product Demo for Foot - Didactic / MCQ

  • Photo credit by Dr. Eric So, DPM
  • Photo credit by Dr. Eric So, DPM

A 50-year-old female patient presents with right forefoot pain. The pain has progressed over the last 1 year. No inciting injury or trauma. Radiographs are provided. There is the loss of plantar cartilage with the collapse of the metatarsal head. The patient has failed conservative management. Which of the following would be the most appropriate surgical treatment?

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